Recently on the mere fidelity podcast, you made a passing remark regarding the use of “idolatry” language and categories for the nuclear family. Could you talk about why you find this kind of language unhelpful?
This is a follow-up to yesterday’s video on the five stones David picked up when facing Goliath.
I found it odd that Jesus would address Peter as “Simon bar-Jonah” after his declaration of Jesus as the Christ (Matthew 16:17) — not because it’s uncommon for men to be referred to as “the son of” someone in the biblical text, but because the occurrence takes place so soon (in the text) after Jesus’ declaration that the only sign that the “wicked and adulterous generation” would receive was “the sign of [what I assume to be the prophet] Jonah” (16:4). Do you see anything beyond the coincidental double appearance of the name Jonah here?
Is there more significance than immediately meets the eye in the reference to ‘Joanna, the wife of Chuza, Herod’s household manager’ becoming a follower of Jesus in Luke 8:3?
One of my supporters has very kindly transcribed this video, in which I discuss the rationales for different orderings of the books of the Bible. I don’t have time to transcribe my videos myself, so anyone willing to volunteer to transcribe one video every week or fortnight would be greatly appreciated! The transcript is very lightly edited at a few points for the purpose of comprehension.
Over the Christmas period, I am posting videos exploring biblical echoes and symmetries in the stories of the nativity in the gospels. In this fifth video, I reveal the character of Rachel lying behind the narrative of Matthew 2. For more on the character of Rachel in Matthew 2, see this video.
What’s going on with the story of the healing of Jairus’ daughter and the woman who touches the hem of Jesus’ garment? I know there are similarities between the two, but I’m not sure what to make of them.
Do you think there is meaning to be found in the ordering of the books of the Bible?
Why did Jesus have to be baptized? Was Jesus’ baptism a baptism of repentance?
I’m wondering to what degree you believe that the original authors of the text(s) were deliberately employing [analogies, types, themes, metaphors, “word pictures”, etc.]? Was the intellectual complexity that you perceive present in the original authorship context, or has the Spirit has orchestrated a significantly bigger picture than those authors could have ever intended?
For example, on your recent answer to the Pool of Bethsaida question, you draw attention to and relevance from the 38-year infirmity of the healed man, and offer a many-minutes-long unpacking of the significance of that number and how it fits the oft-employed water theme in the book of John, etc. My question(s), as applied to this particular situation, would be something like the following:
– Was the man really suffering for exactly 38 years, or did John just pick a number that fit the metaphor he intended to convey?
– Did John know the significance of 38 years. Was he intentionally communicating as deeply as [you believe], or is that depth something the Spirit applies “at a layer above”, that is, across the larger biblical narrative?