Some have described Christ as a sort of “fruitful eunuch.” Others have pointed out that he in fact has a bride. While these would be mutually exclusive in a literal sense, does the Bible require us to choose between them when taken as metaphors?
Was David’s victory over Goliath a miracle? Was he really an underdog or was this a case of misperception as to who was the favorite? We know it is not uncommon for smaller people to defeat larger people in fights.
Why are so many references to God in the NT binitarian (Father and Son) rather than trinitarian (Father, Son and Spirit)? I’m thinking of Paul’s greetings, Stephen’s vision, Jesus’ speeches about unity with the Father, etc. Admittedly the Spirit grows more prominent after Pentecost, but I’ve wondered about this a lot. I’ve seen anti-trinitarians use this argument, but though I can explain it away, I’m not sure I can positively account for it. Thoughts?
A few months ago, Brad Littlejohn and I recorded ourselves having a conversation on the subject of social media for the Davenant Institute. The recording was made available on Facebook, but has just been uploaded on Youtube. You can watch it below.
I am wondering about your take on whether the Lord’s supper should be a somber event of introspection or a joyous meal of celebration. My understanding is that throughout church history it has been observed more as a somber event, but through the works of people like Leithart and Jordan I have come to see it as mainly a celebration of God’s kindness and favor.
How does the book of Proverbs fit in with the rest of the OT? It seems so general and universal, and hardly draws upon Israel’s particular covenant history. It rarely if at all appeals to special revelation from YHWH, the God of Israel, and discusses natural realities that are universally acknowledged. Is there much of a difference between Proverbs and the sort of wisdom literature that pagans would write?
The story of the widow and her two mites (Luke 21:1-4) is often used to commend sacrificial giving. However, the immediate context contains Jesus condemning the Scribes for “devouring widows’ houses” and promising to destroy the temple. Is the story primarily about sacrificial giving? Or, is this story about a corrupt religious system that was devouring widows rather than caring and providing for them? The Macedonians in 2 Corinthians 8 gave out of their poverty, but it was in response to the gospel and doesn’t seem to have been their pennies.
Why does Peter say that the Lord “bought” false teachers in 2 Peter 2:1? How can Christ be said to have “purchased” or “bought” those who are unsaved?
Do you use any Bible software (e.g., Logos) to support your studies? Do you have any thoughts on how they might help or hinder our study and perception of the written word?
If marriage is a pre-political institution then none of the measures laid down by the state (e.g. registration, marriage certificates etc.) make a marriage legitimate in God’s eyes. In which case, what does constitute a legitimate marriage in God’s eyes? One answer I’ve been given, based on Genesis 1-2, is something along the lines of: a man and a woman who make promises to each other before God and some witnesses. What are you thoughts on this, and which passage(s) would you use to make your case?