In Peter Leithart’s A House For My Name, he says that the mosaic covenant comes to an end when the ark is taken by the philistines in 1 Samuel. Is this correct to say the covenant has ended? Or that the Lord undergoes the punishment so as to continue his covenant with them? It seems the prophets during the monarchical period assume the continued validity of the mosaic covenant. If you could provide clarification and correction that would be helpful.