How Can Peter Describe False Teachers as Having Been ‘Bought’ By Christ?

Why does Peter say that the Lord “bought” false teachers in 2 Peter 2:1? How can Christ be said to have “purchased” or “bought” those who are unsaved?

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2 thoughts on “How Can Peter Describe False Teachers as Having Been ‘Bought’ By Christ?

  1. So, you come down pretty solidly where James Jordan suggested in his “Thoughts on Sovereign Grace and Regeneration” paper (i.e. not an interior state change but a constant wrestling of God’s Spirit with our own). I think maybe I picked up on that previously when reading your old posts. That’s something that’s always left me feeling uncomfortable (not that that is any great measure of truth). But every time I come back and think about it, and as I continue to read Scripture with that framework in mind, the more I can see it. Maybe the discomfort is that it’s just one of many ways in which I’m shaking off my former adherence to popular notions from New Calvinism and coming to a bit of a different understanding that’s still pretty Reformedish in the big picture. It’s also a discomfort that such a change of perspective further separates me from Evangelical friends in that it challenges something as central as the meaning of “the born-again experience”. Just some thoughts.

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